Hello Rhonda and David,

For interest's sake, here is my answer to anyone backing me in a corner over John 1:1 in support of the Trinity doctrine, using support from a scholar who does support the trinity.

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Joh 1:1 IN ᾿Εν BEGINNING a̓ρχῇ WAS ἦν THE ὁ WORD Λο´γος, AND κaι` THE ὁ WORD Λο´γος WAS ἦν WITH pρο`ς THE(ONE TRUE) tο`ν GOD Teο´ν, AND κaι` DIVINE/GODLY Teο`ς WAS ἦν THE ὁ WORD Λο´γος.

*Marvin Vincent Word Studies...Notice that Teο`ς is without the "article", which could not have been omitted if he had meant to designate the word as GOD; because in that event, Teο`ς would have been ambiguous; perhaps a God.*
tο`ν Teο´ν is the proper combination of words used to denote "The One True God" or properly, "The God". Had the translator added the article, the translation would definitely be worse as is already reflected upon by Mr. Vincent becoming ὁ Teο`ς or "a god". However, back to Mr. Vincent....

*The predicate is emphatically placed in the propositon before the subject, because of the progress of thought; this being the third and highest statement respecting the Word--climax of the two preceding propositions. The word God, used attributively, maintains the personal distinction between God and the Word, but makes unity of essence and nature to follow the distinction of person, and ascribes to the Word all the attributes of the divine essence.*

While it has been endlessly debated as to if and/or how the Word and God shared essence, it is impossible for humans to decipher, determine, or explain the essence of God, the overall truth that can be taken from this explanation, however is that "The word God, used attributively ( as in godly or divine), maintains the distinction between God and the Word, ......and ascribes to the Word all the attributes of the divine (nature)...." *parenthesis and editing mine.

Notice also in the Latin:

Joh 1:1 in principio erat Verbum et Verbum erat apud Deum et Deus erat Verbum

Each time the words used for The Word(Verbum) and The God(Deum) end in "UM" while the word used in the attributive ends in "US". Had this passage meant to denote that the Word was The God ( both proper nouns), would it not have been depicted as "Deum arat Verbum"?

This correction in translation as follows would make the entire series of scriptures referring to "the Word" harmonize without contradiction and maintain clarity as to the identity of the Word as Christ and his relation to The God....

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was divine. Joh 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him; and without him was not anything made that hath been made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
Joh 1:5 And the light shineth in the darkness; and the darkness apprehended it not.
Joh 1:6 There came a man, sent from God, whose name was John.
Joh 1:7 The same came for witness, that he might bear witness of the light, that all might believe through him.
Joh 1:8 He was not the light, but came that he might bear witness of the light.
Joh 1:9 There was the true light, even the light which lighteth every man, coming into the world.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, and the world knew him not.
Joh 1:11 He came unto his own, and they that were his own received him not.
Joh 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he the right to become children of God, even to them that believe on his name:

Love,

Chris