THREE QUESTIONS
For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. ...Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. (Mat 24:21-30)
There are three simple questions that we need to ask ourselves:
1) Is Jesus here referring to the language of Daniel?
... and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation [even] to that same time: (Dan 12:1)
2) Does 'IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE TRIBULATION OF THOSE DAYS' mean what it says?
3) Has the latter part of the cited passage from Matthew 24 come to pass? Has the sign of the Son of Man appeared? Has Jesus come in Power and great glory?
If first two of these questions are answered in the affirmative, and the third in the negative, then the latter portions of Daniel most certainly still apply to our time, or a time yet future.
David
For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. ...Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. (Mat 24:21-30)
There are three simple questions that we need to ask ourselves:
1) Is Jesus here referring to the language of Daniel?
... and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation [even] to that same time: (Dan 12:1)
2) Does 'IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE TRIBULATION OF THOSE DAYS' mean what it says?
3) Has the latter part of the cited passage from Matthew 24 come to pass? Has the sign of the Son of Man appeared? Has Jesus come in Power and great glory?
If first two of these questions are answered in the affirmative, and the third in the negative, then the latter portions of Daniel most certainly still apply to our time, or a time yet future.
David
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